Mark 10:18. What does it mean? From the NIV (the translation I'll be using throughout this post), it says, “Why do you call me good?” Jesus answered. “No one is good—except God alone. About whom is Jesus speaking when He says "No one is good"? There's no indication that He's referring to any specific people or group of people. He simply says, "NO ONE is good." Indeed, the only exception He cites is "God alone". That sounds like ONLY God and no one else anywhere.
And what is Jesus saying about no one being good? He doesn't say in this passage, "No one does good", does He? Doesn't look like it in any of the 46 translations I've reviewed at Bible Hub. Each of them say distinctly, no one IS good. This speaks to the condition of every person, or, as the Amplified Bible puts it, "No one is [essentially] good [by nature] except God alone." BY NATURE??? (The parentheticals are from the Amplified Bible) Oh, NO! Could it be that the nature of mankind is the opposite of "good"??? Like maybe... bad? Someone might say, "this is speaking of perfection, and being imperfect doesn't mean sinful". But what makes Jesus "perfect" if not that He was born sinless...that He was without sin (2 Corinthians 5:21, John 8:46, Hebrews 4:15, 7:26, 1 Peter 2:22)?
So, if Mark 10:18 isn't contrasting a perfect, sinless God with man's imperfection by virtue of man's sin nature, then what does Jesus's statement, "No one is good" mean?
Jeremiah 17:9. What does it mean? It says, "The heart is deceitful above all things and beyond cure. Who can understand it?" Who is the person who's heart is referenced here? There's no specific person mentioned. It is the heart of man which is deceitful and beyond cure. If that doesn't reference a sin nature, what then does it mean? Even in the context from which this verse is drawn we see it as the reason one's trust must be in God alone, and not in man or the flesh. If it isn't speaking to our sin nature, what does it mean?
Psalm 51:5. What does it mean? It says, "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me." Sinful from conception? How is that not an acknowledgement of the speaker's (David's) sin nature? Is he saying he was exceptional in this way, and that only his nature is sinful? How can one make that case? Is he being hyperbolic? Again, on what basis can anyone say this without merely expressing the hope that he is? How is that even more likely than David simply stating that he is NOT unique among men, but rather that he is as sinful by nature as everyone else? If this Psalm doesn't mean "sin nature", what does it mean?
Romans 7:18. What does it mean? It says, "For I know that good itself does not dwell in me, that is, in my sinful nature. For I have the desire to do what is good, but I cannot carry it out." Here again we have a man, Paul, stating what is true about himself as an example for that which is common to us all. He even goes as far as to name the problem specifically as his "sinful nature". Are we to assume that like David, only Paul is so plagued? How can one defend that position? If Romans 7:18 isn't affirming the concept of man's sin nature, then what does it mean?
Romans 5:12-14. What does it mean? It says, " Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned— To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not charged against anyone’s account where there is no law. Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come." (emphasis mine) The emboldened part indicates ALL are stained by Adam's sin, and indeed is a teaching repeated several times in Scripture. It indicates ALL have a sin nature as a result. If this is NOT what verse 14 is saying, what does it mean?
Ephesians 2:1-2. What does this mean? It says, "As for you, you were dead in your transgressions and sins, 2 in which you used to live when you followed the ways of this world and of the ruler of the kingdom of the air, the spirit who is now at work in those who are disobedient." Does this verse not speak to the condition of those who had come to Christ, contrasting them not only to their previous selves (pre-conversion), but to those still disobedient? If it's not speaking to our sin nature, what does it mean?
Ephesians 2:3. What does THIS mean? It says, "All of us also lived among them at one time, gratifying the cravings of our flesh[a] and following its desires and thoughts. Like the rest, we were by nature deserving of wrath." (emphasis mine) If verses 1-3 aren't teaching about our sin nature, what do they mean?
Genesis 8:21. What does this mean? It says, "And when the Lord smelled the pleasing aroma, the Lord said in his heart, “I will never again curse[a] the ground because of man, for the intention of man's heart is evil from his youth. Neither will I ever again strike down every living creature as I have done." (emphasis mine) "Youth"? From what age specifically is this verse referencing? How can one support the concept it doesn't mean "from birth"? If the emboldened, italicized portion of this verse isn't also speaking of our sin nature, what does it mean?
Psalm 14:2–3. What does this mean? It says, "The Lord looks down from heaven on all mankind to see if there are any who understand,any who seek God. All have turned away, all have become corrupt; there is no one who does good, not even one." (emphasis mine) "All" means "everyone". If this doesn't speak to mankind's sin nature, what does it mean?
Job 15:14-16. What does this mean? It says, “What are mortals, that they could be pure, or those born of woman, that they could be righteous? If God places no trust in his holy ones, if even the heavens are not pure in his eyes, how much less mortals, who are vile and corrupt, who drink up evil like water!" If this isn't denoting mankind's sin nature, what does it mean?
Ecclesiastes 9:3. What does this mean? It says, "This is the evil in everything that happens under the sun: The same destiny overtakes all. The hearts of people, moreover, are full of evil and there is madness in their hearts while they live, and afterward they join the dead." (emphasis mine) Is this verse speaking of a specific people, or people in general when it says, "the hearts of people"? The author of this book, thought to be King Solomon, is reflecting on life in general and thus on people in general. If this is not what he means, what then does it mean?
On September 7, 2026 at 10:29 AM in comments under Dan Trabue's post "Love the "Sinner." Period." (8/29/26), Dan says this laugher:
"IF you want to take the more respectful, rational, humble approach and ask me to address a given text as it relates to your personal human theory, unproven as it is, then cite a passage - your best passage - and I'll offer my opinion about the passage in question as it relates to your human theory and explain (probably once again) why I don't think a given passage is at all proof of your theory/theories."
The citations in this post, as well as a veritable cornucopia of citations I've presented in many, many comments have all been invitations to Dan to provide for us meaning the verses themselves don't plainly convey. That he dares offer to do so now, as if the invitation for such hasn't be an open one for years is typical Dan. But, I'll make the challenge specific once again. I don't want him to "explain" anything. I want him to PROVE the verses I cite don't stand as evidence for the principles he doesn't want to believe are Biblical. This means he needs to bring evidence that the verses I cite mean something entirely different than a plain reading of them so clearly suggests. Without that, he's just blowing farts.